An Intriguing Reference in Origen

I was thumbing through that book 'the Fourfold Gospel' whose author's name I can't uncover and found a discussion which might prove interesting for our understanding of Secret Mark. The author writes "Another reason [why Matthew xx.22 doesn't have a baptism reference] may be that Christians in the first century found it hard as Origen appears to have done [Origen on Matt xx.20 (Lomm.iv.15 foll. and i.266). In the latter passage (Comm John vi.37) the words ... indicate his dissent from the prevalent interpretation] to define the difference between cup and baptism and the way in which the sons of Zebedee actually drank the cup and were baptized with baptism. James the son of Zebedee died a martyr and might have fulfilled Christ's prediction, but how was it filled with John the son of Zebedee who was believed to have lived to a great age and to have died a natural death?"

I would very much like to find the first passage cited in the work. If anyone can help me obtain Origen's analysis here I would appreciate it. Here's the second passage from Commentary on John vi.37 which as the author notes has Origen argue for SOMETHING OTHER THAN MARTYRDOM as the 'greater baptism' of Luke 12:50:

For when He had taken up our infirmities and carried our diseases, and had borne the sin of the whole world, and had conferred blessings on so many, then, perhaps, He received that baptism which is greater than any that could ever be conceived among men, and of which I think He speaks when He says, [Luke 12:50] I have a baptism to be baptized with, and how am I straitened till it be accomplished? I enquire here with boldness and I challenge the ideas put forward by most writers. They say that the greatest baptism, beyond which no greater can be conceived, is His passion ... But if it was the case, as we said before, that after all His deeds of valour done against His enemies, He had need to wash His robe in wine, His garment in the blood of the grape, then He was on His way up to the husbandman of the true vine, the Father, so that having washed there and after having gone up on high, He might lead captivity captive and come down bearing manifold gifts ... For before these economies they were not yet cleansed and angels could not dwell with them, for they too perhaps do not desire to be with those who have not prepared themselves nor been cleansed by Jesus. For it was of Jesus' benignity alone that He ate and drank with publicans and sinners, and suffered the penitent woman who was a sinner to wash His feet with her tears, and went down even to death for the ungodly, counting it not robbery to be equal with God, and emptied Himself, assuming the form of a servant ... Since God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, which formerly for its wickedness was all enemy to Him, He accomplishes His good deeds in order and succession, and does not all at once take all His enemies for His footstool. For the Father says to Him, to the Lord of us all, Sit on My right hand, until I make Your enemies the footstool of Your feet. And this goes on till the last enemy, Death, is overcome by Him. And if we consider what is meant by this subjection to Christ and find an explanation of this mainly from the saying, [1 Corinthians 15:26] When all things shall have been put under Him, then shall the Son Himself be subjected to Him who put all things under Him, then we shall see how the conception agrees with the goodness of the God of all

Am I reading too much into passage by inferring that Origen has the exact same understanding as Ephrem - viz. that the 'baptism' is the 'redemption' afforded by Jesus' martyrdom to the disciple who eventually sits on the throne of God? Notice the reference to Jesus baptizing one of his disciples buried in the passage. In any event let's get back to Ephrem ...

If you are interested in reading how this observation fits within my greater understanding of the workings of Secret Mark WITHIN the contemporary Alexandrian Church please go here

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