Again, through the whole of Job there are many passages in the Hebrew which are not found (οὐχ εὑρίσκεται) in our copies, generally four or five verses [Origen to Africanus 4]
I am not unaware, however, that some have taken offence at the desire of Lot's daughters, and have regarded their conduct as very wicked; and have said that two accursed nations--Moab and Ammon--have sprung from that unhallowed intercourse. And yet truly sacred Scripture is nowhere found (οὐχ εὑρίσκεται) distinctly approving of their conduct as good, nor yet passing sentence upon it as blameworthy. [Origen Contra Celsum 4.45]
And on this account I should be inclined to say, Laban is not favourable to you because God is on your side; for in the soul, by which the external object of the outward senses is honoured as the greatest good, perfect reason is not found (οὐχ εὑρίσκεται) to exist [Philo the Worse Attacks the Better 2]
It should be noted that the account of Antoninus Pius is not found in the copies of Dio (Ἰστέον ὅτι τὰ περὶ τοῦ Ἀντωνίνου τοῦ Εὐσεβοῦς ἐν τοῖς ἀντιγράφοις τοῦ Δίωνος οὐχ εὑρίσκεται) [Cassius Dio History 70]
Let not the godly man, therefore, grieve; if for the present he will not find grief (ἐκβᾶσα οὐχ εὑρίσκεται), blessed is the time that awaits him there; rising up to life again with the fathers he will rejoice for ever without finding grief (ἐκβὰς οὐχ εὑρίσκεται) [2 Clement 19]
I think the use in to Theodore is meant to be quite general, not a citation of specific words which Theodore thought were in the text but a question of whether the Platonic concept of judgment of the dead is present. Again, Maximus of Tyre demonstrates that γυμνὸς γυμνῷ could be used on their own and be immediately recognized as an allusion to Gorgias 523d. Why on earth would Theodore be asking about a specific phrase that allegedly appeared in the gospel? Why do people then keep putting the words in quotations in all translations of the text?
