Thursday, November 20, 2014

73. the gospel of Marcion had Matthew 11:2 - 3

MEG. I will offer you exact proof that the Christ of the Law and the Prophets belonged to another: John did not recognize Him (for it would be impossible for the prophet of the God of Creation to be ignorant of his own Christ: "Now when he had heard in prison the works of Christ, he sent his disciples to Him saying, "Are you He who is to come or look we for another?" [Matt 11:2 -3 De Recta in Deum Fide Pretty p; 70]
AD: (following what we just cited) If John had been inquiring about Christ he would have said "Are you the Christ?" whereas he asked "Are you he that is to come or look we for another?" In fact it is nonsense to inquire of those who are present, "Are you here?" [John the Baptist] was not ignorant of His presence. However because he was His forerunner he inquired whether he was to be that in the abode of the dead also. For he knew that He had stated "I go away and I will send the Paraclete" ... The master had received the disciples and wishing to given them proof, he proceeded to perform His works, and then said, "the blind see, the deaf hear, and the lame walk, the dead rise again. And blessed is he who does not take offense at Me." (Matt 11:5 - 6) So having received them, He began to instruct them through his works, that they might be convinced that he was indeed the Whole Truth. MEG: So alien are we to the Christ who has appeared and the Christ who has appeared to the Creator-God that Paul says "Christ has redeemed us." It is clear then that he redeemed aliens for no one even redeems those who are his own: he redeems aliens nor his own. Origen and Acts of Archelaus will support the Paraclete references were known to the Marcionites. [ibid p. 75]  More Matthew readings appear later in the mouth of Adamantius "But I want to establish more positively that Christ was announced by the Law and Prophets just as the Saviour Himself declared concerning John. He said, "this is he of whom it is written "Behold I send my messenger before your face, who shall prepare your way before you!" Since then this promise came through the promise came through the Prophets so that the forerunner of the Lord was sent before His face - John who was to prepare the way of God - can Marcus and his party can show someone else before whom John was sent? If someone else came prior to Christ sent by the Creator God let them prove it (Pretty notes "but Megethius the colleague of Marcus had already denied that the Christ of the Law (and therefore the Creator God) had come) but if no one else appeared except our Lord Jesus Christ alone, and John went before his face, it is apparent that the promise given was fulfilled then and the Christ is from no other God other than Creator from whom the Law and Prophets also came. [ibid p. 100] 
"And if they say that the sole reason that Isu said concerning |xxxix John 'Blessed is he, if he is not offended in me,' (Matt 11:6) was in order that he might show that he did not communicate (lit. deliver over) to him that other (utterance) which he said concerning him, that he was not a reed—why did he say it ? But if the sole reason of his saying it was in order to show that John was true in his teaching, then he did not send to Isu, and Isu himself made him (i.e. the Evangelist) a liar who recorded that John sent to him, when (in reality) John did not send to him. And if what he said is true, namely that he sent to him, then is not John true ? And if Isu had wished to send to him (saying) 'I am He,' would he not have been going astray after him ? But he said 'Blessed is he if he is not offended in me.' Whom then do they call a stumbling-block ? Is it not he who turned back from (being) with him ? John therefore was one who believed in Isu, and on that account Isu sent (saying) 'Blessed is he if he remains steadfast and is not offended in me.' Or can it be that by means of the beatitude he actually wished to deceive John ? And was John deceived or not ? If he was not deceived, then the bribe of the Stranger was lost. And did not the Stranger know that his bribe would not be accepted by John ? And if he knew, why did he allow his bribe to be lost, that is to say, the bribe of that praise of his ? [Ephrem Against Marcion 1]

Email with comments or questions.

Stephan Huller's Observations by Stephan Huller
is licensed under a
Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 United States License.